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From: Steve Schonberger <microsoft!stevesc@uunet.UU.NET>
Date: Tue, 5 Sep 89 18:52:44 PDT
Subject: Copyright law reply
I tried mailing this directly to Kevin, but it bounced. Since I don't have the original message to try to redirect the message and it may be of interest to some people in this newsgroup anyway, I'll just post it, which I was thinking of anyway. I haven't received the newsgroup in a few days, so I don't know if it's repititious. My apologies for the non-musical content, and to the trashed article header that will probably end up on this note. ---------- From: microsoft!stevesc Date: Fri Sep 1 17:04:41 1989 Subject: Re: Moral and legal grounds of copyright law Newsgroups: rec.music.gaffa Organization: Microsoft Corp., Redmond WA >If Kate wants the demos to stay of out the hands of collectors and fans, then >she'd better get her lawyers warmed up. I'm no lawyer and I don't know if >English law if different than American law, but I think the way it works is >thusly: If I hold a copyright and you violate that copyright and I know it and >do nothing about it, then you stand a good chance of succesfully claiming that >I have placed my copywritten object into the public domain at which point I >and you and everyone looses all control over the objects reproduction, use, etc. I don't know if you're quoting your understanding of English law or U.S. law, but you're not correct about U.S. law. First of all, U.S. law has changed a number of times in recent years. The current law is virtually the same as almost all other developed countries. The previous version was different though. The source for my understanding of the laws is an explanation in the _World Almanac_, and the legal column "Rules of the Game" in _Unix Review_, both of which I'm paraphrasing by memory rather than looking up right now. Trust those publications and my memory as much as you see fit. The current U.S. (and most common international law) law is based on the Berne Convention. The basic idea of this law is that anything gets copyright protection simply by being written or otherwise recorded. No notice of any kind is needed. However, to prosecute an infringment, it's reccomended or required (I forget which) that the creator or owner register the copyright with the government. That's also required to gain copyright protection in places that don't follow the Berne Convention (the only important example of which was the U.S., until recently). Giving notice of a copyright is also reccomended, because the penalties for infringing and rewards for prosecuting an infringer are larger if the infringement is done knowingly, which is a lot easier to prove if the copyright is marked. There is not a thing in the law that says that the owner of the copyright loses the ability to prosecute one instance of infringement, simply by failing to prosecute another known instance. Such a reading of the law wouldn't stand up as an understood part of the law either. Suppose "A" made a copy of something and told the copyright owner, and that owner ignored it. Then "B" made 10000 copies and the owner found out. It would be silly to disallow the owner to prosecute "B", because that would force the owner to take trivial cases like "A" to court just so they could take significant cases like "B" to court later. It's true that failing to take action against "A" now _might_ prevent the owner from taking action against "A" (for that instance of copying), but that's because there is probably a statute of limitations that applies. The old U.S. law required a writer or owner to place a copyright notice on any copies, and said that if that owner failed to mark the notice the work would fall into the public domain, _unless_ the owner failed to mark it by accident. In the event of accidentally not marking a copyright, the owner would lose the ability to prosecute infringement against any copies made before the accidentally unmarked copies were made. But marking all copies made from the time the accident was discovered would restore the copyright protection from that time on. The only ways a work can fall into the public domain are: The time limit expires. The work is explicitly released into the public domain. The work was created in the U.S. before the U.S. law changed, and it had no copyright notice for reasons other than oversight. If you think I'm misstating any of this, feel free to correct me, but please provide a reference to something at least as concrete as my own references. I think I'll post this, if it's not repetitive of lots of other stuff there. -- Steve Schonberger microsoft!stevesc@uunet.uu.net "Working under pressure is the sugar that we crave" --A. Lamb